1. How is it that when the word “hell” is translated properly it disappears from our translations?
2. How is it that Paul who wrote nearly 3/4 of the New Testament did not mention “hell” once? Judgment yes, but “hell,” no.
3. Why did most of the translators add the word “exclusion,” “away,” or “separated” to 2 Thess 1:9, the one verse used to defend a Pauline concept of an eternal hell, when it is not found in the Greek? The ESV leaves it out in their footnote, why is this? Is not a judgment that comes from the face of the Lord extremely different than one that is separated and away from the presence of the Lord? Was this interpretation the result of an assumption, or a bias?
4. The apostle Paul did not mention the word “hell” once. But the one instance he used the word “Hades” is, “O death, where is your sting? O grave (Hades) where is your victory?” Since this is the same word used in the parable of the Rich Man and Lazarus (and other places) then why was it not translated “hell” here? Is it because it would then say, “O hell where is your victory?” Is this yet another example of selective and biased translating? 1 Corinthians 15.
5. Why does the book of Acts not mention an eternal hell?